Prelims GS Paper-I (2024)

Time: 2 Hours | Max Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

  • Each question carries 2 marks
  • Penalty for wrong answers: 0.33 (one-third) marks deducted
  • Choose only one response for each item
  • In case of discrepancy, the English version prevails
1. Which one among the following does not match properly the Noble Prize category with its 2024 laureate?
(A) Peace - Narges Mohammadi
(B) Literature - Han Kang
(C) Economics - Daron Acemoglu, Simon Johnson and James Robinson
(D) Physics - John Hopfield and Geoffrey Hinton
2. Who made history as the first Black man to win the Oscar for Best Costume Design at the 97th edition of the Academy Awards?
(A) Paul Tazewell
(B) Olivier Persin
(C) Emilia Pérez
(D) Sean Baker
3. Arrange the following texts in their chronological order of composition
(a) Brihalaranyaka upanishad
(b) Manusmriti
(c) Arthashastra
(d) Milinda Panha
(A) a-b-c-d
(B) b-c-a-d
(C) с-a-b-d
(D) a-c-b-d
4.Consider the following statements about India's Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs):
(1) India has committed to reduce the emissions intensity of its GDP by 45% by 2030 from 2005 levels.
(2) India aims to achieve about 50% cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel sources by 2030.
(3) India's updated NDC is linked to the Panchamrit announcement made at COP26.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
5. Who has been appointed as India's new Deputy National security Adviser as of August 2025?
(A) Rajinder Khanna
(B) T. V. Ravichandran
(C) Anish Dayal Singh
(D) Pankaj Kumar Singh
6. Match the following
DayUnited Nations Events
(a)3 March(1) World Wildlife Day
(b)7 April(2) World Health Day
(c)3 May(3) World Press Freedomday
(d)20 June(4) World Refugee day

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
(B) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
(C) a-1 b-3 c-4 d-2
(D) a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4
7. What was the official theme of the 38th National Games?
(A) Fit India
(B) Sustainable Olympics
(C) Green Games
(D) Eco-Sports Initiative
8. Match List - I with List - II and select from Code :
List-I
(Colonial Policies/events)
List-II
(Impact on Odisha)
(a) Permanent Settlement (1793)(1) Aggravated economic distress of Odisha peasants
(b) British Reorganization after Maratha defeat(2) Led to the inclusion of Odia speaking tracts under different presidencies
(c) Imposition of Bengali(3) Caused resentment and fueled Odia linguistic identity movement
(d) Slavery Abolition (1843)(4) Enacted by Lord Ellenborough in Odisha
(e) Simon Commission(5) Petitioned by Krushna Chandra Gajapati for separate province

Code:

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
(B) a-2, b-1, с-3, d-4, e-5
(C) a-4, b-5, с-1, d-3, e-2
(D) a-5, b-3, c-4, d-2, e-1
9. Match List - I (Indian Rivers) with List - II (Their Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(Indian Rivers)
List-II
(Tributaries)
(a) Chambal1. Bhima
(b) Cauvery2. Noyyal
(c) Krishna3. Banas
(d) Godavari4. Manjra

Codes:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)2134
(B)3214
(C)4321
(D)3421
10. Match List - I (Indian Rivers) with List - II (Their Tributaries) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(River of Odisha)
List-II
(Tributaries)
(a) Mahanadi1. Sankha
(b) Brahmani2. Raru
(c) Baitarani3. Ong
(d) Subarnarekha4. Deo

Codes:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)2134
(B)3214
(C)3142
(D)3421
11. Who were the first to issue gold coins in India?
(A) Kushans
(B) Sakas
(C) Parthians
(D) Indo Greeks
12.The Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE) recently signed an MoU with which organisation to enhance public awareness about social justice schemes?
(A) Ministry of Defence
(B) National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
(C) National Legal Services Authority (NALSA)
(D) Central Vigilance Commission
13. Match the initiative with its year of launch:
SchemeYear
(a) Ayushman Bharat(1) 2006
(b) National Skill Development Mission(2) 2018
(c) MGNREGS(3) 2015
(d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana(4) 2014

Options:

(A) a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
(B) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
(C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(D) a-1, b²4, c-3, d-2
14.Match the following Rajput rulers with their notable battles or events :
SchemeYear
(a) Rana Sanga(1) Battle of Haldighati
(b) Maharana Pratap(2) Battle of Khanwa
(c) Rao Chandra Sen(3) Struggle against Akbar
(d) Raja Man Singh(4) Conquest of Odisha
(A) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(B) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(C) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(D) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
15.Consider the following statements regarding the structural transformation of the Indian economy:
  1. India's economic growth since the 1990s has been primarily led by the services sector, with a relatively smaller contribution from manufacturing.
  2. The "Make in India” initiative aims to increase the manufacturing sector's share in GDP to 25% and create 100 million additional jobs by 2022.
  3. Despite rapid economic growth, the share of the agricultural sector in India's GDP has consistently declined, while its share in employment remains significant.
  4. The phenomenon of "premature deindustrialization” in India refers to the services sector growing rapidly without a strong manufacturing base.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1,3 and 4 only
(C) 2,3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
16. Which one of the following Article of Indian constitution provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 145
17.Which of the following statements about G-20 is NOT correct?
(A) The G20 was established in 1999.
(B) USA hosted the first G20 Summit of leaders in 2008.
(C) The presidency of the G20 rotates every year among member countries.
(D) Chile is a member of G20.
18.The foundational ideology of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was inspired by :
(A) Italian nationalist movement and the works of Mazzini
(B) Leninist Communism and the Russian Revolution
(C) American War of Independence and George Washington
(D) Irish freedom struggle and Sinn Fein Movement
19.Which of the following fundamental rights is available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners?
(A) Right to Equality before Law (Article 14)
(B) Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)
(C) Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
(D) Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)
20. Match List - I (Geological Structure) with List - II (Economic Importance) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(Geological Structure)
List-II
(Economic Importance)
(a) Siwalik Hills1. Coal, Mica, and Uranium Resources
(b) Deccan Traps2. Black cotton soils, Sugarcane agriculture
(c) Singhbhum Craton3. Fossil-rich Sedimentary deposit
(d) Chhota Nagpur Plateau4. Rich in Iron ore deposits

Codes:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)2134
(B)3214
(C)3241
(D)3421
21.As per the Global Hunger Index 2023, India ranks at which position globally?
(A) 105
(B) 107
(C) 111
(D) 115
22.Consider the following statements regarding ecological pyramids:
  1. In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is always upright.
  2. Pyramids of biomass are always inverted in marine ecosystems.
  3. Pyramids of energy are never inverted.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1,2 and 3
23.Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
  1. He is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  2. He has the right to participate in proceedings of Parliament but without voting rights.
  3. He must have qualifications equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
  4. His remuneration is fixed by the Parliament through a law under Article 148 of the constitution

Options:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
24.Which of the following statements about the Chenab Rail Bridge is correct?
  1. It is a Cable-stayed bridge.
  2. The Chenab Rail Bridge is taller than the Eiffel Tower.
  3. It is a part of the Golden Quadrilateral Railway Project.
  4. It is the world's highest Railway arch bridge.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 3
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4
25.Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding Schedules of the Indian Constitution?
(A) 6th Schedule - Languages recognized by the Constitution
(B) 7th Schedule - Division of powers between Union and States
(C) 8th Schedule - Land Reforms and Ceiling on Landholdings
(D) 9th Schedule - Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
26.Which category under the IUCN classification is not directly recognized in the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
(A) Critically Endangered
(B) Vulnerable
(C) Endemic
(D) Extinct in the Wild
27.Acetylsalicylic acid is known as:
(A) Oil of wintergreen
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ibuprofen
(D) Paracetamol
28. Match List - I with List - II and select from Code:
List-I
(Name)
List-II
(Activities)
(a) Madhusudan Das(1) Leader of Khurda Rebellion
(b) Buxi Jagabandhu(2) Founder of Utkal Sammilani
(c) Fakir Mohan Senapati(3) Pioneer of Modern Odia literature
(d) Krushna Chandra Gajapati(4) Played Key role in Odisha's R1 separate province formation

Code:

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(C) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
29.What does NISAR stand for?
(A) NASA-ISRO Space and Aeronautics Research
(B) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar
(C) National Indian Space and Aeronautics Radar
(D) NASA International Satellite for Advanced Research
30.Consider the contributions and challenges of the Services Sector in India:
  1. The Services sector is the largest contributor to India's GDP and has been the primary driver of economic growth in recent decades.
  2. Despite its large share in GDP, the services sector's share in total employment is significantly lower than that of agriculture.
  3. The growth in services has often been termed "jobless growth" in the formal sector, leading to a rise in informal service sector's employment.
  4. Digitalization and the rise of the IT/ITeS sector have further solidified India's position as a global service hub, but the benefits are not uniformly distributed across the workforce.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2,3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
31. Consider the following statements marked as
Assertion (A): In central and southern Odisha, the Proterozoic era is represented by the Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt.
Reason (R): These rock formations are linked to the mineralisation of bauxite, manganese, graphite.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
32.Match List - I with List - II and Select the correct answer while using the Code given below
List-I
(Leader)
List-II
(organisation)
(a) M. C. Raja(1) All India Depressed Classess League
(b) Jagjivan Ram(2) All India Depressed Classes Congress
(c) B.R. Ambedkar(3) All India Depressed Classes Association
(d) Mahatma Gandhi(4) All India Harijan Sangh

Code:

(A) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(B) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
(C) a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
(D) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
33.The Ganjam Plates of Madhav Raja II of the Shailodbhava dynasty provide valuable information about which aspect of early Medieval Odisha's history?
(A) The generalogy and territorical extent of the Shailodbhava rulers.
(B) The maritime trade networks of the Shailodbhavas with South east Asia
(C) The construction of the Mukteshvara temple at Bhubaneswar
(D) The diplomatic relations between the Shailodbhavas and the Gupta Empire
34.Which of the following statements about the Asia Cup cricket tournament is NOT correct.
  1. The Asia Cup is a cricket tournament played among the Asian group of nations.
  2. The Asia Cup is organised by the Asian Cricket Council.
  3. The Asia Cup was first held in the year 1984.
  4. The first Asia Cup cricket tournament was played in Colombo, Sri Lanka.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 1
(D) 4 only
35.. Match List- I (Sub divisions of Himalayas) with List - II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I
(Sub divisions of Himalayas)
List-II
(Characteristics)
(a) Trans-Himalaya 1. Known for hill stations like Shimla Mussoorie
(b) Greater Himalaya 2. Composed of unconsolidated sediments forming foothills
(c) Lesser Himalaya 3. Includes Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar range
(d) Siwaliks 4. Contain Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga

Codes:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)1423
(B)3214
(C)3241
(D)3412
36.Which of the following statements is/ are correct about the Rajya Sabha?
  1. It is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
  2. One-third of its members retire every two years.
  3. The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
  4. It can be dissolved by the President during National Emergency.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
37.Who fought the Battle of Talikota?
(A) Harihara I
(B) Devaraya II
(C) Krishna Deva Raya
(D) Rama Raya
38.The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) functions under :
(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Cabinet Secretariat
(D) Prime Minister's Office (PMО)
39.India's first OECM (Other Effective area-based Conservation Measure) recognition was awarded for which reason?
(A) Ex-situ conservation of orchids
(B) Sacred groves with endemic fauna
(C) Biodiversity management in community forests
(D) Coral reef mapping
40.Who commissioned the construction of the rock-cut Jain Monastries on Udayagiri Hills?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(C) Kharavela
(D) Bindusara
41.Which of the following statements about Tropical Evergreen Forests in India are NOT correct?
  1. They are confined only to the Eastern Ghats of India
  2. The trees shed their leaves simultaneously during the dry summer season.
  3. They are found in regions receiving rainfall above 200 cm.
  4. Ebony, mahogany, and rosewood are common species.
(A) 3 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
42.What is the Surya Heliophysics Foundation Model?
(A) A planetary rover
(B) An AI model to forecast solar activity
(C) An Earth observation satellite
(D) A spacecraft
43.Arrange the religious institutions established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in chronological order :
  1. Unitarian Committee
  2. Vedanta College
  3. Atmiya Sabha
  4. Brahmo Samaj
(A) d, a, b, c
(B) c, a, b, d
(C) b, d, c, a
(D) a, c, b, d
44.Consider the following statements concerning India's Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
  1. India's MPI uses health, education and standard of living as dimensions, aligning with the global MPI methodology.
  2. The MPI is published by NITI Aayog using data primarily from the National Family Health Survey (NFHS).
  3. The Global MPI is released annually by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
  4. India's MPI includes indicators such as nutrition, school attendance and access to clean cooking fuel, among others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
45.The "One Health" approach in public policy refers to :
(A) Integrating traditional and modern health systems
(B) Linking human, animal and environmental health to prevent pandemics
(C) Making public and private hospitals work jointly
(D) Telemedicine expansion to rural areas
46.Which of the following statements about the Odisha Integrated Irrigation Project for Climate Resilient Agriculture (OIIPCRA) is NOT correct?
  1. ОIІРCRA is jointly funded by the Government of Odisha and the World Bank.
  2. The project aims to improve irrigation infrastructure and promote climate-resilient farming practices in selected districts.
  3. It primarily focuses on largescale dam construction to increase irrigation potential in coastal Odisha.
  4. The project supports farmer training, capacity building and the introduction of climate-smart agricultural technologies.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 4 only
47.Who is the author of the book "Baidehisha Bilasa"?
(A) Hari Charan Deva
(B) Sisu Sankar Das
(C) Upendra Bhanja
(D) Harihar Kabi
48.Which of the following statements about Biosphere Reserves in India are NOT correct?
  1. Great Nicobar is one of the designated biosphere reserves.
  2. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is spread over Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
  3. There are no biosphere reserves in the Himalayan region.
  4. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
49.The Mission Karmayogi launched by the Government of India is aimed at:
(A) Skill development for unemployed youth
(B) Сараcity building and competency development of civil servants
(C) Leadership training for Panchayati Raj officials
(D) Military training for disaster response
50.In India, the 'Threatened Species Recovery Programme' under NBAP targets species that are:
(A) Locally extinct but globally common
(B) Keystone species across agroecological zones
(C) Species with narrow geographic range and declining population
(D) Genetically engineered but endangered
51.Which Mughal Emperor appointed the first separate Subahdar of Odisha, and in which year did Odisha became a separate Subah?
(A) Akbar, 1593
(B) Aurangzeb, 1658
(C) Shahjahan, 1628
(D) Jahangir, 1607
52.Match these summits to their host cities:
List-I
(Organizations)
List-II
(Locations)
(a) G7 (2025)(1) Kananaskis
(b) NATO (2025)(2) The Hague
(c) SCO (2024)(3) Islamabad
(d) G20 Summit (2025)(4) Johannesburg

Code:

(A) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
(B) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
(C) a-1 b-3 c-4 d-2
(D) a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4
53.The E1 Nino phenomenon is associated with:
(A) Weakening of monsoon in India
(B) Strengthening of monsoon in India
(C) No effect on the monsoon in India
(D) Only winter rains in India
54.Which country did India defeat in both men's and women's Kho Kho World Cup 2025 finals?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
55.Match the following :
List-I
(Authors)
List-II
(Books)
(1) G7 (2025)(a) Kananaskis
(2) NATO (2025)(b) The Hague
(3) SCO (2024)(c) Islamabad
(4) G20 Summit (2025)(d) Johannesburg

Choose the Correct Codes:

(1)(2)(3)(4)
(A)badc
(B)acbd
(C)dbac
(D)dcba
56.The 15th Finance Commission recommended a health grant architecture focusing on
(A) Health cess consolidation into GST
(B) States' debt takeover by Centre
(C) Universal health premium
(D) Urban/rural health infrastructure and primary health care strengthening
57.The Chola navy was known for its expedition against :
(A) Cambodia and Laos
(B) Vietnam
(C) Indonesia and Sri Lanka
(D) Maldives
58.The PM Gati Shakti - National Logistics Policy targets:
(A) Achieving net-zero carbon emissions in urban transport
(B) Integrating road, rail, port, and airport infrastructure for faster goods movement
(C) Promoting bullet train corridors
(D) Increasing domestic shipbuilding industry
59.What differentiates India's Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) from the NAPCC?
(A) It targets only renewable energy
(B) It provides sector-specific deeр decarbonization roadmaps
(C) It replaces all earlier missions
(D) It excludes forestry
60.Mustard Gas is:
(A) Uranium hexafluoride
(B) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
(C) 2,2'-dichlorodiethylsulfide
(D) Diethylsulphoxide
61.Read the following statements and choose the correct alternative in respect of settlement geography of the world
Statement-1: In humid tropical regions, rural settlements often take the form of compact villages.
Statement-2: Isolated farmsteads are more common in the densely populated rice-growing regions of Asia.
Statement-3: Physical barriers like mountains and deserts can lead to clustered settlements in limited habitable pockets.
Statement-4: Settlement morphology is linked to agricultural systems and land ownership patterns.
(A) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct, and Statement 4 is incorrect.
(B) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect.
(C) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 1 is incorrect.
(D) Statement 3 is correct, and Statements 1, 2 and 4 are incorrect.
62.The basic foundation of global economic governance in the post- second World War was laid by various institutional frameworks. Which of the following combinations is correct?
  1. IMF, World Bank, GATT
  2. IMF, World Bank, Asian Development Bank
  3. World Bank, GATT, BRICS
  4. Asian Development Bank, IMF,IBRD

Options:

(A) a and b
(B) a, band c
(C) a, c and d
(D) a,b,c and d
63.With respect to inflation in the Indian context, consider the following statements:
  1. Retail inflation, measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), is the primary metric used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for monetary policy formulation.
  2. Core inflation includes volatile components like food and fuel prices, providing a more stable measure of underlying inflationary pressures.
  3. Supply-side factors, such as monsoons affecting agricultural output and global crude oil prices, play a significant role in India's inflation dynamics.
  4. Headline inflation refers to the total inflation in an economy, including volatile components such as food and energy prices.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
64.A Committee was constituted to formulate fundamental duties after emergency in 1976. It was headed by which of the following personalities?
(A) VC Shukla
(B) DK Barooah
(C) Sardar Swaran Singh
(D) Sanjeeva Reddy
65.Wave like character of an electron is proved by:
(A) The ionization of an atom
(B) The flow of electrons in a metal wire
(C) The deflection of an electron beam by electrical plates
(D) The diffraction pattern of electrons scattered from a crystalline solid
66.Match List-I with List II and choose the correct answer from the Code given below
List-I
(Nationalist Women)
List-II
(Their Activities)
(a) Sarojini Naidu(1) A leader of the under ground movement
(b) Usha Mehta(2) Joined Azad Hind Fauz
(c) Aruna Asaf Ali(3) Led the Salt Satyagraha in Dharsana
(d) Dr. Lakshmi Swaminathan(4) Operated Secret radio during Quit India movement

Choose the Correct Codes:

(a)(b)(c)(d)
(A)4213
(B)3412
(C)4321
(D)3241
67.The 2025 Cambodia-Thailand border conflict was primarily triggered by:
(A) Disputes on Oil and gas resources in the Gulf of Thailand.
(B) Historical disputes over Preah Vihear Temple and the surrounding territory.
(C) Disputes on Mekong River watersharing.
(D) Trade War.
68.The term seamless web with reference to the interconnectedness of different parts of Indian Constitution was used by which of the following authors?
(A) Granville Austin
(B) K.C. Wheare
(C) Donald Smith
(D) A.V. Dicey
69.Which of the following combinations are correct with regarding the social welfare policies and the year in which it was introduced.
  1. PMPOSHAN: 2021
  2. Right to Education : 2009
  3. Ayushman Bharat: 2018
  4. PM Awaas Yojana: 2015

Options:

(A) a, b, c and d
(B) c, a, d and b
(C) b, d, c and a
(D) d, c, a and b
70.With reference to the challenges of urbanization in India, consider the following statements:
  1. Rapid urbanization often leads to strain on existing infrastructure such as housing, sanitation, water supply, and transportation.
  2. The growth of informal settlements (slums) is a common consequence of unplanned urbanization due to unaffordable formal housing.
  3. Urban areas typically experience higher rates of unemployment compared to rural areas, leading to increased pressure on social services.
  4. Smart Cities Mission aims to promote sustainable and inclusive cities by applying "smart" solutions and leveraging technology.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1,3 and 4 only
(C) 1,2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
71.Who was the founder of the Lingayat sect?
(A) Appar
(B) Basava
(C) Bijjala
(D) Abhinava
72.Tarkunde Report is related to which of the following?
(A) Electoral Reforms
(B) Centre State Relations
(C) Economic Reforms
(D) Educational Reforms
73.The CAMPA funds are prioritized for activities that involve:
(A) Mining clearance proposals
(B) Community-managed wind farms
(C) Compensatory afforestation and eco-restoration
(D) River-interlinking project evaluations
74.The Dyarchical system of government was introduced by which of the following measures?
(A) Government of India Act, 1909
(B) Government of India Resolution 1918
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
75.Which of the following is a nonreducing sugar :
(A) Glucose
(B) Maltose
(C) Sucrose
(D) Fructose
76.Which of the following statements about World Cultural Realms are NOT correct?:
  1. Осccidental Realm: Includes Western Europe, North America, Australia, and New Zealand; shares Greco--Roman heritage, Christianity and industrial development.
  2. Indic Realm: Centered in India; shaped by Hinduism, Buddhism and related cultural traditions.
  3. Islamic Realm:Restricted solely to the Arabian Peninsula, excluding North Africa and Southeast Asia.
  4. Sino-Japanese Realm: Comprises China, Japan, Korea, and Vietnam; influenced by Confucianism, Buddhism, and Taoism.
  5. Sub-Saharan African Realm: Unified by Bantu linguistic roots and indigenous beliefs, with significant Islamic and Christian presencе.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 3 and 5
77.Which of the following statements about the CM-KISAN scheme of Odisha are NOT correct?
  1. Livelihood support under the scheme is provided exclusively to large landholding farmers
  2. Input support is given to farmers for cultivation.
  3. Krishi Vidya Nidhi Yojana under CM-KISAN aims to promote agricultural education among farmers' children.
  4. The scheme is designed to be progressive and inclusive in nature.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
78.Arrange the following committees in a chronological order:
  1. N.N. Vohra Committee
  2. Rajinder Sachar Committee
  3. D.S. Kothari Committee
  4. Raja. J. Chelliah Committee

Choose the correct answer:

(A) a, b, c and d
(B) c, d, a and b
(C) b, a, c and d
(D) a, c, b and d
79.Which of the followings is not a dye:
(A) Alizarin
(B) Fluorescein
(C) Phenolphthalein
(D) Anthranilic acid
80.Consider the following statements regarding the Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO) :
  1. IDCO was established as a statutory corporation by the Government of Odisha in 1981.
  2. It serves as the nodal agency for providing industrial infrastructure and land for industrial and infrastructure projects across the state.
  3. The corporation's objectives include the development of industrial estates, IT parks and other industrial complexes.
  4. IDCO's functions do not include land acquisition or the creation of a land bank for major and mega projects.
  5. The corporation facilitates private-sector participation and provides project construction services.

Which of the statements given above is NOT correct?

(A) 2 only
(B) 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 5 only
81.Consider the following statements with regard to the Comptroller Auditor General.
  1. The office of CAG has been modelled on the basis of Advocate General under the Government of India Act, 1919.
  2. CAG is the impartial head of the audit and account system of India.
  3. CAG can be removed by the President on the grounds of 'proven misbehaviour'.
  4. The term of office of CAG shall be six years from the date on which he assumes office.

Choose the correct answer:

(A) a and b
(B) a and c
(C) b and d
(D) a, b, c and d
82.Under which Mughal Emperor was the office of Muhtasib (Censor of Public Morals) instituted in Odisha?
(A) Shahjahan
(B) Aurangzeb
(C) Jahangir
(D) Humayun
83.Who was the first Leader to Move a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly demanding the Unification of all Odia speaking tracts into a separate province?
(A) Madhusudan Das
(B) Gopa bandhu Das
(C) Hare Krushna Mahatab
(D) Nil Kantha Das
84.Consider the following statements:
  1. The Inter-State Council (ISC) was set up under Article 263 of the Constitution.
  2. Punchhi Commission recommended the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
  3. The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council.
  4. It discusses matters of common interests and suggests policies for better coordination.

Choose the correct codes:

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 1
(D) 1, 2 and 3
85.Which climate initiative specifically supports Himalayan glacial monitoring?
(A) ICAР
(B) National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
(C) State REDD+ Programme
(D) Bharat Clean Energy Mission
86.Which of the following statements about the global industrial pattern is NOT correct?
  1. Japan, Germany, and the USA are leaders in automobile production.
  2. India and Bangladesh are major centres for textile and garment industries.
  3. South Korea and Taiwan are known for shipbuilding and heavy machinery.
  4. Canada and Australia are primarily known for heavy industry rather than resourcebased industries.

Choose the correct codes:

(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 and 1 only
(D) 4 only
87.Which of the following was the first major administrative measure taken by the Congress Ministry formed in Odisha under Hare Krushna Mahatab on 23 April 1946?
(A) Abolition of Zamindari Settlements
(B) Release of political prisoners
(C) Repeal of salt laws in Coastal Odisha
(D) Introduction of Compulsory primary education
88.Which of the following best defines the concept of Pareto Optimality?
(A) A situation where everyone is equally well-off
(B) A situation where no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off
(C) A situation where total wealth is maximized
(D) A situation where the government redistributes resources equally
89.Consider the following statements:
  1. Under Artical 124(4) of the Indian Constitution, a Supreme Court Judge can be impeached.
  2. The ground for impeachment of a Judge pertains to 'incapacity and proven misbehavior'.
  3. Aminimum of 100 MPs are required to initiate the impeachment motion in the Lok Sabha.
  4. The President can pardon the Judge.

Which of the following statements are IN CORRECT?

(A) a and b
(B) c only
(C) c and d
(D) a, cand d
90.Consider the following statements regarding Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and their indicators:
  1. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, adopted by all United Nations Member States in 2015, comprises 17 SDGs and 169 targets.
  2. SDG 1 targets poverty ending in all its forms everywhere, using indicators like the proportion of people living below the national poverty line.
  3. The "leave no one behind" principle is central to the SDGS, emphasizing disaggregated data collection to identify vulnerable groups.
  4. Sustainable Consumption and Production (SCP) is primarily addressed under SDG 14, focusing on efficient resource use and reducing waste.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
91.Section 4 of the RTI Act states that the obligations of public authorities to maintain records and publish information within _____ days from the enactment of the Act.
(A) 120
(B) 30
(C) 110
(D) 10
92.Consider the following statements about the Ramsar sites in India:
  1. A Ramsar site is declared based on its ecological importance and biodiversity richness.
  2. Chilika Lake was the first Indian site to be added to the Ramsar list.
  3. As of 2023, India has more than 75 Ramsar sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
93.The writ of Mandamus is issued:
(A) To release a person from illegal detention
(B) To transfer a case from a lower court to a higher court
(C) Тo сompel a public official to perform a public duty
(D) To question the legality of a person holding a public office
94.Consider the following statements about Samudrayaan Mission;
  1. The development of the Samudrayaan Mission will enhance India's capability in Nuclear Submarine Development
  2. Samudrayaan Mission aims to develop a self-propelled manned Submersible.
  3. Samudrayaan Mission aims to explore deep oceans up to 6000 meters.
  4. Samudrayaan Mission aims to boost marine tourism.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below;

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 4 only
95.Which of the following statements regarding India's aquaculture policies is/are correct?
  1. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims to enhance fish production and boost exports.
  2. The Coastal Aquaculture Authority regulates aquaculture activities in brackish water and coastal areas.
  3. The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) is responsible for promoting modern aquaculture practices.
  4. The FAO's Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries is legally binding in India.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below;

(A) 1,2, and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 3, and 4 only
96.What is the time limit provided for making a complaint under the Prevention of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013 (POSH)?
(A) 14 days
(B) One month
(C) Two months
(D) Three months
97.Consider the following statements about endemic species in India:
  1. Endemic species are restricted to a specific geographical location.
  2. The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to the Western Ghats.
  3. Endemic species always fall under the IUCN Critically Endangered category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
98.The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Part VII
(B) Part XIII
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part IX
99.Consider the following statements about delimitation and its implications in India:
  1. Delimitation is the process of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state assembly constituencies to represent changes in population.
  2. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and its orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.
  3. The primary objective of delimitation is to ensure that all constituencies have roughly equal populations, thereby upholding the principle of "one person, one vote."
  4. The current delimitation exercise is based on the 2001 Census, with the next one mandated after the first census following 2026.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
100.Which British Governor-General of India formally annexed Odisha into the British empire?
(A) Warren Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Wellesley
(D) Lord Dalhousie