OPSC: Polity PYQs

2024

Q1: Which one of the following Article of Indian constitution provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?

(A) Article 131
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 145

Q2: Which of the following fundamental rights is available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners?

(A) Right to Equality before Law (Article 14)
(B) Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)
(C) Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
(D) Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)

Q3: Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:

He is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
He has the right to participate in proceedings of Parliament but without voting rights.
He must have qualifications equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
His remuneration is fixed by the Parliament through a law under Article 148 of the constitution.

Options:

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q4: Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding Schedules of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 6th Schedule - Languages recognized by the Constitution
(B) 7th Schedule - Division of powers between Union and States
(C) 8th Schedule - Land Reforms and Ceiling on Landholdings
(D) 9th Schedule - Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram

Q5: Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Rajya Sabha?

It is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
One-third of its members retire every two years.
The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
It can be dissolved by the President during National Emergency.

Options:

(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6: A Committee was constituted to formulate fundamental duties after emergency in 1976. It was headed by which of the following personalities?

(A) VC Shukla
(B) DK Barooah
(C) Sardar Swaran Singh
(D) Sanjeeva Reddy

Q7: The term seamless web with reference to the interconnectedness of different parts of Indian Constitution was used by which of the following authors?

(A) Granville Austin
(B) K.C. Wheare
(C) Donald Smith
(D) A.V. Dicey

Q8: Tarkunde Report is related to which of the following?

(A) Electoral Reforms
(B) Centre State Relations
(C) Economic Reforms
(D) Educational Reforms

Q9: Consider the following statements with regard to the Comptroller Auditor General.

The office of CAG has been modelled on the basis of Advocate General under the Government of India Act, 1919.
CAG is the impartial head of the audit and account system of India.
CAG can be removed by the President on the grounds of 'proven misbehaviour'.
The term of office of CAG shall be six years from the date on which he assumes office.

Choose the correct answer:

(A) a and b
(B) a and c
(C) b and d
(D) a, b, c and d

Q10: Consider the following statements:

The Inter-State Council (ISC) was set up under Article 263 of the Constitution.
Punchhi Commission recommended the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council.
It discusses matters of common interests and suggests policies for better coordination.

Choose the correct codes:

(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 1
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Q11: Consider the following statements:

Under Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution, a Supreme Court Judge can be impeached.
The ground for impeachment of a Judge pertains to 'incapacity and proven misbehavior'.
A minimum of 100 MPs are required to initiate the impeachment motion in the Lok Sabha.
The President can pardon the Judge.

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT?

(A) a and b
(B) c only
(C) c and d
(D) a, c and d

Q12: The writ of Mandamus is issued:

(A) To release a person from illegal detention
(B) To transfer a case from a lower court to a higher court
(C) To compel a public official to perform a public duty
(D) To question the legality of a person holding a public office

Q13: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Part VII
(B) Part XIII
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part IX

Q14: Consider the following statements about delimitation and its implications in India:

Delimitation is the process of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state assembly constituencies to represent changes in population.
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and its orders have the force of law and cannot be challenged in any court.
The primary objective of delimitation is to ensure that all constituencies have roughly equal populations, thereby upholding the principle of "one person, one vote."
The current delimitation exercise is based on the 2001 Census, with the next one mandated after the first census following 2026.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above

2023

Q1: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'New Criminal Laws' enacted by Indian Parliament?

The new criminal law Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita came into effect from April 1, 2023
Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita replaced the Indian Penal Code
Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam came into effect from July 1, 2024
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita was passed by the parliament in December, 2023

A) 1 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4
D) 2 and 3

Q2: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Union Budget 2024-25?

Total expenditure projected at Rs. 48.21 Lakh Crore
Receipts excluding Borrowings Rs. 32.07 Lakh Crore
Fiscal Deficit projected at 6.8% of GDP
Net Tax Receipts Rs. 34.83 Lakh Crore

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

Q3: The motto, "Yato dharmastato Jayah" has been adopted by
(A) The Lok Sabha of India
(B) The Rajya Sabha of India
(C) The Constituent Assembly of India
(D) The Supreme Court of India

Q4: Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of 'Constituent Assembly?
(1) Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July-August, 1946
(2) The Indian National Congress won 208 Seats
(3) Muslim League won 73 Seats
(4) Princely States won 93 Seats
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

Q5: Which of the following matchings are not correct in respect of Schedules and Subjects in Indian Constitution?
(1) II - Emoluments for C & AG of India
(2) III - Allocation of Seats in Council of States
(3) VI - Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas
(4) IX - First Amendment of Indian Constitution
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

Q6: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Electoral College in India to elect President of India?
(1) It consists of Elected Members of Legislative Assemblies of National Capital Territory of Delhi, and Union Territory of Puducherry and were added to Electoral College by 70th Constitutional Amendment
(2) The number and values, of votes are based on the population of 1971 Census of India as per 42 Constitutional Amendment
(3) 84th Constitutional Amendment fixed the values of votes based on current population Census 2011
(4) The entry of MLAs of NCT of Delhi and Union Territory of Puducherry came with effect from June 1, 1993
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

Q7: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the genesis of the 'Doctrine of Basic Structure of Constitution'?
(1) This doctrine was first propounded by Supreme Court in Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India Case
(2) In Sajjan Singh Vs State of Rajasthan Case Supreme Court held that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution
(3) In Golaknath Vs the State of Punjab Case Supreme Court ruled that Art. 368 only lays down the procedure to amend the Constitution but does not give an absolute power to Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution
(4) In the case of Waman Rao Vs Union of India Supreme Court set aside the basic structure doctrine
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 4

Q8: Which Four Articles of Indian Constitution among the below given Articles were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976?
(1) Art. 24 (A)
(2) Art. 28 (A)
(3) Art. 39 (A)
(4) Art. 43 (A)
(5) Art. 46 (A)
(6) Art. 48 (A)
(7) Art. 144 (A)
(8) Art. 323 (A)
(A) 1, 3, 5 and 7
(B) 3, 4, 6 and 7
(C) 2, 5, 7 and 8
(D) 1, 3, 5 and 8

Q9: Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Union List of Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution?
(1) There are 100 subjects in the List
(2) This List signifies Co-operative Federalism
(3) There are 15 subjects in the Union List on which Parliament has an exclusive power to levy Taxes
(4) The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction over the matters in Union List
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4

Q10: Which of the following are Non-Constitutional Bodies in India?
(1) Tribunals [cite: 6146]
(2) National Investigation Agency
(3) Competition Commission of India
(4) Law Commission of India
(5) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(6) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(A) 1, 5 and 6
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 5 and 6
(D) 2, 4 and 5

Q11: Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of the Election Commission of India?
(1) Art. 327 gives power to Parliament to make provision with respect to elections to Legislatures
(2) Besides Chief Election Commissioner, two Additional Commissioners were appointed for the first time on January 1, 1990
(3) The Election Commissioner Amendment Act 1990 made the Election Commission a Multi-member body
(4) The decisions in Election Commission by the members are made by unanimous vote
(A) 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Q12:The Impeachment of Indian President in the Parliament is a
(A) Political Procedure
(B) Legal Procedure
(C) Quasi-judicial Procedure
(D) None of these

Q13: Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Advocate General in India?
(1) The Advocate General is the highest Law Officer of the State
(2) He is appointed by the Governor on the advice of Chief Justice of High Court
(3) He should be eligible to be appointed as the Judge of a High Court
(4) He/She should not be more than 65 years of age
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3

Q14: Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Private Member Bill introduced in Parliament?
(1) A Private Member is any Member of Parliament other than Member of Treasury Bench
(2) The Bill of this nature are introduced and debated only on Mondays
(3) It's introduction in the House requires One Month notice
(4) A Constitution Amendment Bill may be introduced either in Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
(A) 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

Q15: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Anti-Defection Law?
(1) Anti-defection Law found place in the Constitution by 52nd Constitutional Amendment
(2) The Tenth Schedule of Indian Constitution was inserted in the Constitution in the year 1989
(3) The Anti-defection Law was reinforced in the year 2002
(4) If any Member who is independently elected joins any political party, he is not disqualified
(A) 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 4

Q16: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Special Sessions in Parliament?
(1) The term Special Session of Parliament is defined in Art. 85 of Indian Constitution
(2) Art. 352 (8)(b) of Indian Constitution speaks about Special Sitting of the House of Parliament
(3) The proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament in special sessions would be limited
(4) If proclamation of Emergency is issued when the Parliament is not in Session, 1/3 of Lok Sabha and 1/3 of Rajya Sabha Members can ask the President to convene a Special Session of Parliament
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

Q17: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Due process of Law' and 'Procedure established by Law'?
(I) 'Due Process of Law' focuses on the formal adherence to legal procedures set by the Government
(II) 'Procedure established by Law' emphasises the protection of individuals Rights and fairness in the application of Law and Legal Proceedings
(A) I is correct and II is not correct
(B) II is correct and I is not correct
(C) Both I and II are correct
(D) Both I and II are not correct

Q18: Which of the Articles of Indian Constitution relating to Fundamental Rights are not available to Foreigners in India?
(A) Articles 14, 20, 21, 24 and 26
(B) Articles 21, 21(A), 23, 25 and 28
(C) Articles 14, 22, 25, 26 and 28
(D) Articles 15, 16, 19, 29 and 30

Q19: Which Four Amendments to Indian Constitution given below are related to Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in India?
List of Amendments: 1, 8, 19, 29, 46, 65, 95, 102
(A) 1, 8, 65, 95
(B) 8, 19, 46, 102
(C) 19, 46, 65, 95
(D) 1, 19, 29, 65

Q20: Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of 'Right to Privacy'?
(1) The Nine-Judge Constitutional Bench that declared 'Right to Privacy' as Fundamental Right was headed by Justice J.S. Khehar
(2) The Supreme Court of India gave this historic judgement on August 24, 2018
(3) Justice J.S. Khehar was the former 42nd Chief Justice of India
(4) He was appointed as Chief Justice of India in the year 2017
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

Q21: Which of the following is not included in Art. 19 of Indian Constitution?
(A) Freedom of Speech and Expression
(B) Freedom of Movement
(C) Freedom from Detention
(D) Freedom of Association

Q22: Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India refers to protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife?
(A) 39A
(B) 43A
(C) 48A
(D) 51A

Q23: The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mentioned in which part of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Part VII
(B) Part XIII
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part IX

2022

Q1: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Objective Resolution' of Indian Constitution?
(1) The Author of this Resolution was Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(2) It was adopted by Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947
(3) The goal of this Resolution was to declare India as a Sovereign, Socialist, Democratic Republic
(4) This Resolution later framed as the Preamble of Indian Constitution
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 2

Q2: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Constituent Assembly'?
(1) The Constituent Assembly was constituted under the scheme of 'Cabinet Mission Plan'
(2) The total strength of Constituent Assembly originally was 369
(3) 296 seats were allotted to British India
(4) 73 seats to Princely States
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 3

Q3: Consider the following pairs in respect of 'Sources of Indian Constitution' and pick up the right matchings.
Item : Source
(1) Office of Governor : England
(2) Public Service Commission : Govt. of India Act-1935
(3) Freedom of Trade & Commerce : USA
(4) Language of Preamble : Australia
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

Q4: Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution are not related to each other?
(1) Art. 12 and Art. 36
(2) Art. 13 and Art. 368
(3) Art. 22 and Art. 32 (2)
(4) Art. 141 and Art. 214
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 4 only
(C) 1 and 3
(D) All are related

Q5: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Lame Duck Politician?
(1) Having lost a re-election bid
(2) Choosing not to seek another term after expiration of his/her term.
(3) No term limit running for particular office again
(4) Abolition of Office after his/her official term
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) None of the above
(D) All above

Q6: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Basic Structure of Indian Constitution?
(1) It is a form of Judicial Review
(2) It is used to test the legality of any legislation by the Courts
(3) The Doctrine of Basic Structure of Constitution gave free hand to Parliament to amend any part of Constitution
(4) The Constitution of India defines 'basic structure' in terms of Federalism, Secularism, Fundamental Rights and Socialism.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 3 and 4

Q7: Entry 5 of List II of Seventh Schedule of Indian Constitution deals with -
(A) Public Order
(B) Public Health
(C) State Pensions
(D) Local Governments

Q8: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Art. 243 of Indian Constitution?
(1) Art. 243 (C) provides representation of chairpersons of Panchayats at the Village level in the Panchayats at the District level.
(2) Art. 243 (D) provides representation for women to the offices of chairperson in Panchayats at village level.
(3) Art 243 (I) is related to power to levy taxes by Panchayats
(4) Art. 243 (J) is related to bar on the courts to call in question the election of Panchayats
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3

Q9: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of the Election Commission of India?
(1) It is an autonomous Legal Body
(2) Part XV of Indian Constitution deals with the Elections and the Election Commission
(3) The Election Commission was established on January 25, 1950
(4) Art. 328 provides bar on the interference of Courts in electoral matters.
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3

Q10: Which of the following Committees recommended for the creation of 'Nyaya Panchayats' at village level?
(A) L.M. Singhvi Committee
(B) G.V.K. Rao Committee
(C) Mohan Kanda Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee

Q11: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Attorney General of India'?
(1) Attorney General of India is a part of Indian Judiciary
(2) Attorney General of India is appointed by President on the advice of Chief Justice of India
(3) The term of office of Attorney General of India is not fixed by the Constitution
(4) Attorney General of India has right to take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament.
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4

Q12: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of Bills introduced in Parliament?
(1) If a Government Bill is rejected by the House in Parliament it amounts 'vote of confidence' in the Government
(2) The Government's Bill introduction in the House necessitates a fifteen-day notice
(3) The 'Taxation Laws (Amendment) Bill 2021' comes under the category of Money Bill
(4) The Central Universities (Amendment) Bill 2021 comes under Ordinary Bill.
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4

Q13: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Types of Majority in Parliament'?
(1) Absolute Majority - More than 50% of the House's total Strength
(2) Simple Majority - The majority of more than 50% of those present and voting
(3) Effective Majority: Majority of the House's effective strength.
(4) Effective Strength: means total strength excluding number of vacancies
(5) Special Majority: Majority of 2/3 members of total strength of the House
(A) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 2, 3 and 5
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q14: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Sittings of Parliament'?
(1) In the year 1955 a Lok Sabha Committee had proposed a time-table for parliamentary sessions with three times a year
(2) It suggested Budget Session from February 1, to May 7
(3) It suggested Monsoon Session from July 1 to September 10
(4) It suggested Winter Session from November 15 to December 15
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 3 and 4

Q15: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Procedure established by Law' and 'Due process of Law'?
(I) Under the principle of 'Procedure established by Law', as long as the government follows the procedures it has established, it's actions are considered valid, even if they may appear unfair, or unjust to individuals
(II) 'Due Process of Law' doctrine not only checks if there is a Law to deprive the life and personal liberty of a person but also sees if the Law made is fair, just and not arbitrary.
(III) 'Procedure established by Law' is an American doctrine and 'Due Process of Law' is Indian constitutional doctrine.
(A) I is correct and II and III are not correct
(B) I and II are correct and III is not correct
(C) I and III are correct and II is not correct
(D) I, II and III are correct

Q16: Which of the following while pursuing common interests of their Groups, attempt to influence the Public Policy making?
(A) Pressure Groups
(B) Elite Groups
(C) Bureaucracy
(D) Political Parties

Q17: Which of the following are the features of 'Good Governance'?
(1) Accountability
(2) Conservatism
(3) Rigidity
(4) Transparency
(5) Integrity
(6) Micro Management
(A) 2, 3 and 6
(B) 1, 2 and 6
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 4 and 5

Q18: Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of Art. 21 of Indian Constitution?
(1) It guarantees Right to Life and Personal Liberty
(2) In the case of Narmada Bachao Andolan Vs Union of India 2020, Supreme Court held that 'Right to Water' is not a Fundamental Right but Legal Right
(3) Right to Water is inferred from the Right to Life
(4) The Supreme Court also held that access to Clear Water is a Natural Right
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4

Q19: From which Constitution 'Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency' was borrowed to Indian Constitution?
(A) Soviet Constitution, USSR
(B) Weimer Constitution of Germany
(C) French Constitution
(D) Swiss Constitution

Q20: Which of the following statements are correct in respect of 'Right to Education'?
(1) Art. 21(A) of Indian Constitution provides Right to Education for free and compulsory education to all
(2) Right to Education Act was passed by Indian Parliament on August 4, 2009
(3) Right to Education came in to force on November 14, 2009
(4) Art. 21 (A) was inserted in the Constitution by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2004
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 2 and 4

Q21: Which of the following are related to 'Right to Privacy'?
(1) Art. 21 of Indian Constitution
(2) Art. 12 of Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(3) Art. 17 of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
(4) Art. 8 of European Convention on Human Rights
(A) 1, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All above

2021

Q1: Which of the following statement/s is / are correct in respect of Parliamentary form of Government in India?
(i) This system is founded on the notion of collaboration and co-ordination between Legislature and Executive.
(ii) India borrowed Parliamentary form of Government from Britain.
(iii) This type of Government can also be formed without political parties.
(iv) In this form of Government the Head of the State is Prime Minister.
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iv) only
(D) (i) and (ii)

Q2: Which of the following statements are not correct in respect of Public Accounts Committee of Parliament?
(i) This committee was first mentioned in Minto-Morley Reforms.
(ii) This committee is constituted under Rule 308 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
(iii) This committee is constituted for every two years.
(iv) It restricts any minister for being elected as a member of it.
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)

Q3: Which of the following features of Indian Constitution are not borrowed from South Africa?
(i) Election of the members of Rajya Sabha
(ii) Amendment of the Constitution
(iii) Concept of 'Procedure established by Law'
(iv) Centre appoints the Governors at the States
(A) (ii) and (iii)
(B) (i) only
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) only

Q4: In respect of Rajya Sabha which of the following statement/s is / are correct?
(i) Like Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha is also subjected to dissolution.
(ii) Rajya Sabha has equal footing in legislation with the Lok Sabha including in the area of supply.
(iii) The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of Legislative Assemblies of States / UTS.
(iv) The nominated members of Rajya Sabha are part of Electoral College for Election of Vice-President.
(A) (iii) only
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iv) only

Q5: Which of the following statement/s is / are correct in respect of Impeachment of Indian President?
(i) The President of India is to be impeached for violation of the Constitution.
(ii) The charges against the President shall be preferred by Lok Sabha only.
(iii) Rajya Sabha only shall investigate the charges against President.
(iv) There is no provision of impeachment of President of India in Indian Constitution.
(A) (ii) only
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) only
(D) (i) and (iii)

Q5: Consider the following statements in respect of Collegium system in Judiciary:
(i) It is the system of appointments and transfer of Judges.
(ii) This system has come through an Act of Parliament.
(iii) The Supreme Court Collegium is comprising of Chief Justice of India and 8 other senior most Judges.
(iv) As far as Chief Justice of India is concerned the outgoing Chief Justice of India recommends his successor.
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)

Q6: Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
(i) Part X of Indian Constitution deals with the Scheduled and Tribal areas.
(ii) This Part contains Art. 220 to Art. 224.
(iii) This Part deals with formation of autonomous state comprising of certain tribal areas in Assam.
(iv) Assam also comes under Fifth Schedule of Indian Constitution.
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (i) only

Q7: Consider the following statements: The Fundamental Duties:
(i) Are defined as the moral obligations of all citizens.
(ii) Are not enforceable through courts.
(iii) Are added to the Constitution through 44th Amendment of Constitution.
(iv) The Eleventh Fundamental Duty was added to Part IV-A of Constitution by 42nd Amendment.
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)

Q8: Consider the following statements in respect of Fundamental Rights during times of Emergencies:
During the times of emergencies:
(i) The enforcement of all Fundamental Rights may be suspended.
(ii) There is provision for moving to court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
(iii) Right to Protection in respect of conviction for offences cannot be suspended.
(iv) Right to Protection of Life and Personal Property cannot be suspended.
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (ii) and (iv)
(C) (i) and (iv)
(D) (iii) and (iv)

Q9: Which of the following statement/s is / are not correct in respect of Adjournment Motion in Lok Sabha?
(i) It's objective is to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance.
(ii) It requires proper and Seven days prior notice given to the Chair.
(iii) It will not interrupt the normal business of the House.
(iv) It pinpoints the failure of the Government in the performance of it's duties in accordance with Constitution and Laws.
(v) It is mandatory on the part of the Chair to permit the Motion.
(A) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (v)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii), (iii) and (v)

Q10: Consider the following statements in respect of Anti-defection Law in India?
(i) Political Parties got Constitutional recognition by 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
(ii) Anti-defection Law came into effect on March 18, 1985.
(iii) The decision of the Speaker in disqualifying an elected member is subject to judicial review.
(iv) Anti-defection law comes in action if there is split in the Political Party.
(A) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)

Q11: Consider the following statements in respect of Panchayati Raj Institutions in India:
(i) Every Panchayati has right to receive grant-in-aid from the State Fund on the recommendation made by NITI Aayog.
(ii) The assigned / shared revenues are one which is collected by State Government but shared / transferred to local bodies.
(iii) State Finance Commission recommends transfer of financial resources from Centre to the States.
(iv) The State Finance Commission created under Article 243 (1) reviews the financial position of Panchayats and Municipalities.
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)

Q12: Consider the following statements in respect of Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj System in India.
This Committee recommended:
(i) Replacement of the then three-tier system by a two-tier system
(ii) Setting up of Peace Committees at each District level to resolve non-secular issues
(iii) Supremacy of elected bodies through devolution of powers
(iv) Non-participation of political parties in Panchayati elections
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (iii) and (iv)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)

2020

Q1: The Ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its:

(A) Preamble
(B) Directive Principle's of State Policy
(C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Seventh Schedule

Q2: Who, as per the provisions of the Constitution, declares an area as a Scheduled Area?

(A) Prime Minister
(B) President of India
(C) Governor
(D) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

Q3: The Concurrent List in the Constitution of India was adopted from:

(A) Switzerland
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) France

Q4: Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States?

(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Sixth Schedule
(D) Seventh Schedule

Q5: Mandamus is a writ issued by the Apex Court:

(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perform legal duties
(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office
(C) Asking a person who has detained any other persons to appear before a court
(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction

Q6: Any money bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without the consent of the:

(A) Prime Minister of India
(B) Union Finance Minister
(C) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

Q7: The first state in India which was created on linguistic basis:

(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Haryana
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala

Q8: The Right to Education for all between 6 and 14 years of age has been included as a Fundamental Right in the year:

(A) 1998
(B) 2001
(C) 2002
(D) 2000

Q9: The All India Whips Conference is organised by:

(A) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) Chief Ministers of States
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President of India

Q10: The purpose of Uniform Civil Code incorporated in Article 44 of Indian Constitution is for:

(A) National Security
(B) Cultural Integration
(C) National Unity
(D) Welfare of Minorities

Q11: Keeping control over delegated legislation is the power of:

(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Supreme Court

Q12: The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises of:

(A) Prime Minister and all Chief Ministers
(B) Chief Ministers and Experts and Specialists
(C) All Chief Ministers and Lieutenant Governors
(D) Chief Ministers and Union Finance Minister

Q13: The Chairman of Zonal Council in India is:

(A) Finance Minister
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Union Home Minister
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha